[Jun-2026] ISTQB-CTFL Free Sample Questions to Practice One Year Update
Download ISTQB-CTFL exam with ISTQB ISTQB-CTFL Real Exam Questions
NEW QUESTION # 236
Metrics can be collected during and at the end of testing activities to assess which of the following?
i. Progress against the planned schedule and budget.
II. Current quality of the test object.
Hi. Adequacy of the test approach.
iv. Effectiveness of the test activities with respect to the objectives.
v. All the above.
Select the correct answer:
- A. Only i and iii.
- B. Only i and ii.
- C. Only I, ii and iv.
- D. Only v.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Metrics can be collected during and at the end of testing activities to assess various aspects including progress against the planned schedule and budget, the current quality of the test object, the adequacy of the test approach, and the effectiveness of the test activities with respect to the objectives. Collecting these metrics helps in understanding the overall performance and quality of the testing process.
NEW QUESTION # 237
Which of the following statements about static analysis are FALSE?
I, Static analysis can be used Instead of dynamic testing.
II, Stalk: analysis can uncover defects like security vulnerabilities.
III, Static analysis can be used to check conformance to specifications and standards.
IV Static analysis typically detects failures prior to component testing.
- A. I, IV
- B. I, II
- C. II, Ill
- D. III, IV
Answer: A
Explanation:
Static analysis involves analyzing the software's code, design, and structure without executing the program. It can uncover various types of defects, including security vulnerabilities (II) and non-conformance to specifications and standards (III). However, static analysis cannot replace dynamic testing (I), which involves executing the software to observe its behavior under various conditions. Dynamic testing can identify failures that static analysis cannot, such as those related to runtime issues and interaction between different parts of the software. Statement IV is false because static analysis does not detect failures; it detects defects. Failures are observed when the software is executed, which is beyond the scope of static analysis.
NEW QUESTION # 238
Which of the following lists factors That contribute to PROJECT risks?
- A. problems in defining the right requirements; contractual issues; poor software quality characteristics.
- B. skill and staff shortages; problems in defining the right requirements, contractual issues.
- C. skill and staff shortages; software does not perform its intended functions; problems in defining the right requirements.
- D. poor software quality characteristics; software does not perform its intended functions.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Project risks are the uncertainties or threats that may affect the project objectives, such as scope, schedule, cost, and quality. According to the ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 syllabus, some of the factors that contribute to project risks are:
* Skill and staff shortages: This factor refers to the lack of adequate or qualified human resources to perform the project tasks. This may result in delays, errors, rework, or low productivity.
* Problems in defining the right requirements: This factor refers to the difficulties or ambiguities in eliciting, analyzing, specifying, validating, or managing the requirements of the project. This may result in misalignment, inconsistencies, gaps, or changes in the requirements, affecting the project scope and quality.
* Contractual issues: This factor refers to the challenges or disputes that may arise from the contractual agreements between the project parties, such as clients, suppliers, vendors, or subcontractors. This may result in legal, financial, or ethical risks, affecting the project delivery and satisfaction.
The other options are not correct because they list factors that contribute to PRODUCT risks, not project risks. Product risks are the uncertainties or threats that may affect the quality or functionality of the software product or system. Some of the factors that contribute to product risks are:
* Poor software quality characteristics: This factor refers to the lack of adherence or compliance to the quality attributes or criteria of the software product or system, such as reliability, usability, security, performance, or maintainability. This may result in defects, failures, or dissatisfaction of the users or stakeholders.
* Software does not perform its intended functions: This factor refers to the deviation or discrepancy between the expected and actual behavior or output of the software product or system. This may result in errors, faults, or malfunctions of the software product or system.
References = ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 syllabus, Chapter 1: Fundamentals of Testing, Section 1.5: Risks and Testing, Pages 14-16.
NEW QUESTION # 239
A Static analysis tool analyzes a given program's CONTROL FLOW among other things. Which of the following options represents the most likely outcome of the control flow analysis:
- A. Identification of unreachable code
- B. Number of source code lines
- C. Number of comment lines
- D. Report on adherence to the coding standards
Answer: A
Explanation:
A static analysis tool is a tool that analyzes a given program's source code or executable code without executing it. A static analysis tool can perform various types of analysis on a program's code, such as syntax checking, data flow analysis, control flow analysis, complexity measurement, coding standards compliance checking, etc. Control flow analysis is a type of analysis that examines how a program's statements are executed in different paths or branches. One of the most likely outcomes of control flow analysis is identification of unreachable code, which is code that can never be executed due to logical errors or design flaws. Unreachable code can reduce readability and maintainability of the code, as well as increase complexity and size. The other options are not outcomes of control flow analysis, but rather outcomes of other types of analysis. Report on adherence to coding standards is an outcome of coding standards compliance checking. Number of comment lines and number of source code lines are outcomes of complexity measurement. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 8.
NEW QUESTION # 240
Consider an estimation session in which a six-member Agile team (Memb1..... Memb6) uses the planning poker technique to estimate a user story (in story points). The team members will use a set of cards with the following values: 1,2, 3,5, 8,13,21. Below is the outcome of the first round of estimation for this session:
Which of the following answers BEST describes how the estimation session should proceed?
- A. The final estimate of the user story in story points is determined by calculating the average value between the most optimistic estimate of 21 story points (Memb4> and the most pessimistic estimate of
1 story point (Memb6) - B. The final estimate of the user story in story points is determined by applying the three-point estimation technique with the following input values most optimistic estimate - 1, most likely estimate - 3, and most pessimistic estimate - 21
- C. Further estimation rounds should be performed until all team members will pick the card having the same value: this value will represent the final estimate of the user story in story points.
- D. Memb6 and Memb4 which have produced the most pessimistic and the most optimistic estimates respectively, should explain the reasons of their choices to stimulate a discussion between all members before proceeding to another estimation round
Answer: D
Explanation:
In Agile teams using the planning poker technique for estimating user stories, it is common practice to have further discussions and rounds of estimation if there is a significant discrepancy in the initial estimates. This helps in reaching a consensus and ensures that all team members understand the complexity and requirements of the user story. According to the ISTQB CTFL syllabus, planning poker involves discussions to clarify differences in estimates, especially when there is a wide range of values selected. By having Memb6 and Memb4, who provided the most pessimistic and optimistic estimates, explain their reasoning, it fosters a deeper understanding and encourages the team to converge towards a more accurate and agreed-upon estimate.
References: ISTQB CTFL Syllabus, Section on Agile methodologies and estimation techniques.
NEW QUESTION # 241
What is test oracle?
- A. The source of lest objectives
- B. The source of expected results
- C. The source of input conditions
- D. The source for the actual results
Answer: B
Explanation:
A test oracle is a mechanism or principle that can be used to determine whether the observed behavior or output of a system under test is correct or not1. A test oracle can be based on various sources of expected results, such as specifications, user expectations, previous versions, comparable systems, etc2. References:
ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 Syllabus, Section 1.2.1, Page 91; ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms, Version 4.0, Page 332.
NEW QUESTION # 242
Metrics can be collected during and at the end of testing activities to assess which of the following?
i. Progress against the planned schedule and budget.
II. Current quality of the test object.
Hi. Adequacy of the test approach.
iv. Effectiveness of the test activities with respect to the objectives.
v. All the above.
Select the correct answer:
- A. Only i and iii.
- B. Only i and ii.
- C. Only I, ii and iv.
- D. Only v.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Metrics can be collected during and at the end of testing activities to assess various aspects including progress against the planned schedule and budget, the current quality of the test object, the adequacy of the test approach, and the effectiveness of the test activities with respect to the objectives. Collecting these metrics helps in understanding the overall performance and quality of the testing process.
NEW QUESTION # 243
Which of the following can be considered a VALID exit criterion?
I Estimates of defect density or reliability measures.
II. The completion and publication of an exhaustive Test Report.
III. Accuracy measures, such as code, functionality or risk coverage.
IV Residual risks such as lack of code coverage in certain areas.
- A. I, II, III
- B. II, III, IV
- C. I, III, IV
- D. III, IV
Answer: C
Explanation:
An exit criterion is a condition that defines when a test activity has been completed or when a test phase can be concluded. An exit criterion can be based on various factors, such as:
* I) Estimates of defect density or reliability measures. These are quantitative measures that indicate how many defects are present in the software product or how likely it is to fail under certain conditions.
These can be used as exit criteria to ensure that the software product meets a certain level of quality or performance before moving to the next phase or releasing it to the customer.
* III) Accuracy measures, such as code coverage, functionality coverage or risk coverage. These are quantitative measures that indicate how much of the software product has been tested in terms of its code, functionality or risk. These can be used as exit criteria to ensure that the test suite is adequate or complete before moving to the next phase or releasing it to the customer.
* IV) Residual risks, such as lack of code coverage in certain areas, unresolved defects or unknown factors. These are qualitative measures that indicate the remaining risks or uncertainties associated with the software product after testing. These can be used as exit criteria to ensure that the residual risks are acceptable or manageable before moving to the next phase or releasing it to the customer. The following factor is not a valid exit criterion:
* II) The completion and publication of an exhaustive Test Report. This is not a valid exit criterion, as it does not reflect the quality or completeness of the testing process or product. A test report is a document that summarizes the results and outcomes of a test activity or phase. A test report can be used as aninput for deciding whether to exit a test activity or phase, but it is not a condition that defines when to exit. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB® Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 2, page 13; Chapter 6, page 58-59.
NEW QUESTION # 244
In a two-hour uninterrupted test session, performed as part of an iteration on an Agile project, a heuristic checklist was used to help the tester focus on some specific usability issues of a web application.
The unscripted tests produced by the tester's experience during such session belong to which one of the following testing quadrants?
- A. Q3
- B. Q4
- C. Q1
- D. Q2
Answer: A
Explanation:
The unscripted tests produced by the tester's experience during the two-hour test session belong to the testing quadrant Q3. The testing quadrants are a classification of testing types based on two dimensions: the test objectives (whether the testing is focused on supporting the team or critiquing the product) and the test basis (whether the testing is based on the technology or the business). The testing quadrants are labeled as Q1, Q2, Q3, and Q4, and each quadrant represents a different testing perspective, such as unit testing, acceptance testing, usability testing, or performance testing. The testing quadrant Q3 corresponds to the testing types that have the objective of critiquing the product from the business perspective, such as exploratory testing, usability testing, user acceptance testing, alpha testing, beta testing, etc. Theunscripted tests performed by the tester in the given scenario are examples of exploratory testing and usability testing, as they are based on the tester's experience, intuition, and learning of the web application, and they focus on some specific usability issues, such as the user interface, the user satisfaction, the user feedback, etc. The other options are incorrect, because:
* The testing quadrant Q1 corresponds to the testing types that have the objective of supporting the team from the technology perspective, such as unit testing, component testing, integration testing, system testing, etc. These testing types are usually performed by developers or testers who have access to the source code, the design, the architecture, or the configuration of the software system, and they aim to verify the functionality, the quality, and the reliability of the software system at different levels of integration.
* The testing quadrant Q2 corresponds to the testing types that have the objective of supporting the team from the business perspective, such as functional testing, acceptance testing, story testing, scenario testing, etc. These testing types are usually performed by testers or customers who have access to the requirements, the specifications, the user stories, or the business processes of the software system, and they aim to validate that the software system meets the expectations and the needs of the users and the stakeholders.
* The testing quadrant Q4 corresponds to the testing types that have the objective of critiquing the product from the technology perspective, such as performance testing, security testing, reliability testing, compatibility testing, etc. These testing types are usually performed by testers or specialists who have access to the tools, the metrics, the standards, or the benchmarks of the software system, and they aim to evaluate the non-functional aspects of the software system, such as the efficiency, the security, the reliability, or the compatibility of the software system under different conditions or environments. References: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and documents:
* ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 1.3.1, Testing in Software Development Lifecycles
* ISTQB® Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Testing Quadrant, Exploratory Testing, Usability Testing, Unit Testing, Component Testing, Integration Testing, System Testing, Functional Testing, Acceptance Testing, Story Testing, Scenario Testing, Performance Testing, Security Testing, Reliability Testing, Compatibility Testing
NEW QUESTION # 245
"Statement Testing" is part of;
- A. Specification Based testing
- B. Decision Testing
- C. Structured based testing
- D. Experience based testing
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement Testing is a type of white-box testing technique where the test cases are designed based on the implementation of the software, specifically aiming to execute every statement in the code at least once. This falls under the category of structure-based testing (also known as white-box testing), where the internal structure of the system is used to design test cases. Therefore, option D is correct.
NEW QUESTION # 246
Consider the following statements about risk-based testing.
I) Risk-based testing has the objective to reduce the level of protect risks.
II) Tests should be prioritized to find tie critical detects as early as possible.
III) Non-testing activities may also help to reduce risk
IV) Risks have to be reassessed on a regular basis.
V) The project stakeholders can give useful input to determine the risks
- A. C. I, II and IV are true. III and V are false.
- B. II, Ill and V are true. 1 ants Iv are false.
- C. II, III IV and V are correct. I is false.
- D. I III IV and V are true. II is false.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The following statements about risk-based testing are correct:
* II) Tests should be prioritized to find tie critical detects as early as possible. Risk-based testing involves prioritizing tests based on risk level, which reflects both the likelihood and impact of defects or failures.
Tests with higher risk level should be executed earlier than tests with lower risk level, in order to find and fix critical defects as soon as possible.
* III) Non-testing activities may also help to reduce risk. Risk-based testing does not only involve testing activities, but also other activities that can help mitigate risks, such as reviews, inspections, audits, simulations or prototyping.
NEW QUESTION # 247
A Static analysis tool analyzes a given program's CONTROL FLOW among other things. Which of the following options represents the most likely outcome of the control flow analysis:
- A. Identification of unreachable code
- B. Number of source code lines
- C. Number of comment lines
- D. Report on adherence to the coding standards
Answer: A
Explanation:
A static analysis tool is a tool that analyzes a given program's source code or executable code without executing it. A static analysis tool can perform various types of analysis on a program's code, such as syntax checking, data flow analysis, control flow analysis, complexity measurement, coding standards compliance checking, etc. Control flow analysis is a type of analysis that examines how a program's statements are executed in different paths or branches. One of the most likely outcomes of control flow analysis is identification of unreachable code, which is code that can never be executed due to logical errors or design flaws. Unreachable code can reduce readability and maintainability of the code, as well as increase complexity and size. The other options are not outcomes of control flow analysis, but rather outcomes of other types of analysis. Report on adherence to coding standards is an outcome of coding standards compliance checking. Number of comment lines and number of source code lines are outcomes of complexity measurement. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB® Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 8.
NEW QUESTION # 248
In what way do Configuration Management effects testing?
- A. There is very little influence of configuration management practices on the test project.
- B. Proper configuration management ensures that testers can uniquely identity the tested item
- C. Configuration management is important for developers, not for testers
- D. Without proper configuration management, test planning cannot proceed.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Configuration management is a process that establishes and maintains consistency among work products throughout their life cycle. Configuration management affects testing in various ways, such as:
Proper configuration management ensures that testers can uniquely identify the tested item, which can help traceability, reproducibility and accountability.
Proper configuration management ensures that testers have access to consistent versions of software components and testware, which can help reliability, compatibility and efficiency.
Proper configuration management ensures that testers can track changes and defects in software components and testware, which can help verification, validation and reporting.
Proper configuration management ensures that testers can control the configuration of the test environment, which can help stability, security and performance. Configuration management is not a prerequisite for test planning, as test planning can proceed without configuration management, although it may be less effective or accurate. Configuration management is not important for developers only, but for testers as well, as it affects the quality and consistency of the testing process and products. Configuration management has a significant influence on the test project, as it affects various aspects of testing, such as traceability, reproducibility, reliability, compatibility, efficiency, verification, validation, reporting, stability, security and performance. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 6, page 60-61.
NEW QUESTION # 249
Which sequence of state transition stated in the answer choices is correct in accordance with the following figure depicting me life-cycle of a defect?
- A. S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S1->S2->S3
- B. S0->S1->S2->S3->S5^>S1
- C. S0->S1->S2->S3->S4
- D. S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S3->S4
Answer: A
Explanation:
The figure depicts the life-cycle of a defect using state transition testing. State transition testing is a technique that models how a system transitions from one state to another depending on events or conditions. The figure shows six states (S0 to S5) and seven transitions (T0 to T6). The correct sequence of state transitions that follows the figure is S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S1->S2->S3. This sequence represents the following scenario:
* S0: The defect is not yet detected (initial state).
* T0: The defect is detected by testing (event).
* S1: The defect is reported and registered (state).
* T1: The defect is assigned to a developer for fixing (event).
* S2: The defect is being fixed by the developer (state).
* T2: The developer fixes the defect and delivers a new version (event).
* S3: The defect is verified by testing (state).
* T5: The testing fails to confirm that the defect is fixed (event).
* S5: The defect is rejected by testing (state).
* T6: The defect is reassigned to a developer for fixing (event).
* S1: The defect is reported and registered (state).
* T1: The defect is assigned to a developer for fixing (event).
* S2: The defect is being fixed by the developer (state).
* T2: The developer fixes the defect and delivers a new version (event).
* S3: The defect is verified by testing (state). The other sequences are incorrect, as they do not follow the transitions shown in the figure. Verified References: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level
2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 4, page 40-41.
NEW QUESTION # 250
Which of the following statements is TRUE'?
- A. Functional testing can be applied to all test levels, while non-functional testing can be applied only to system and acceptance test levels.
- B. Black-box test techniques and experience-based test techniques may be applicable to both functional testing and non-functional testing
- C. Unlike functional testing, non-fundional testing can only be applied to conventional systems, not artificial intelligence-based system.
- D. Functional testing focuses on what the system is supposed to do, while white-box testing focuses on how well the system does what it is supposed to do
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement D is correct. According to the ISTQB CTFL syllabus, both black-box test techniques (which focus on testing without internal knowledge of the application) and experience-based test techniques (which rely on testers' experience and intuition) can be applied to both functional and non-functional testing. Functional testing is concerned with what the system does, whereas non-functional testing looks at how the system performs under certain conditions. These techniques are versatile and can be employed to address both these aspects.
NEW QUESTION # 251
Which of the following are valid testing principles?
I) Exhaustive testing is in general impossible.
II) Exhaustive testing should be executed for code intended to be reused.
III) Testing may guarantee that a program is correct.
IV) Testing cannot guarantee that a program is correct.
V) Defects cluster together in certain areas of the product.
- A. II, Iv
- B. I, Ill
- C. I, V
- D. I, IV, V
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statements I, IV and V are valid testing principles according to the ISTQB syllabus. Statement I states that exhaustive testing is in general impossible, because it would require testing all possible inputs, outputs and combinations of states, which is usually impractical or impossible. Statement IV states that testing cannot guarantee that a program is correct, because testing can only show the presence of defects, not their absence.
Statement V states that defects cluster together in certain areas of the product, which means that some modules or functions are more likely to contain defects than others. Statements II and III are invalid testing principles. Statement II states that exhaustive testing should be executed for code intended to be reused, which contradicts statement I. Statement III states that testing may guarantee that a program is correct, which contradicts statement IV. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, pages 4-5.
NEW QUESTION # 252
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