Real Exam Questions CTFL_Syll2018 Dumps Exam Questions in here [Jul-2024]
Get Latest Jul-2024 Conduct effective penetration tests using CTFL_Syll2018
NEW QUESTION # 107
Which of the following test execution outcomes are likely to increase the overall quality of the software:
I) A test case passes
II) A test case fails, defect gets logged which subsequently gets fixed III) Some tests are deferred because test environment is not available IV) A bug is found but there is no corresponding test case
- A. I and II
- B. I, II and III
- C. I and IV
- D. I, II and IV
Answer: A
Explanation:
The overall quality of the software can be increased by finding and fixing defects before releasing the software to the customers or users. A test case passes means that no defect was found in the tested functionality, which indicates a high quality. A test case fails, defect gets logged which subsequently gets fixed means that a defect was found and corrected, which improves the quality. Some tests are deferred because test environment is not available means that some functionality was not tested, which may leave some defects undetected, which reduces the quality. A bug is found but there is no corresponding test case means that a defect was found by chance or by other means than planned testing, which does not increase the quality of the testing process or the test coverage.
Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus1, Chapter 1, Section 1.1.
NEW QUESTION # 108
You are introducing a new test tool into your organization and planning a pilot project.
What is a MAIN objective of this pilot project?
- A. To immediately save cost for current projects in your organisation
- B. To show competitors that your organisation is improving its test process
- C. To motivate the test team and make testers feel valued
- D. To learn more detail about the tool and how it fits with existing processes
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
A main objective of a pilot project for introducing a new test tool into an organization is to learn more detail about the tool and how it fits with existing processes. states this as follows:
A pilot project should be conducted before introducing a new test tool into an organization in order to learn more about how to use it effectively and efficiently in your context and how it will interact with other tools and processes.
A pilot project is not meant to immediately save cost for current projects in your organisation (A), as it may require additional resources and time to set up and evaluate the tool. A pilot project is not meant to show competitors that your organisation is improving its test process (B), as it is an internal activity that may not be visible or relevant to external parties. A pilot project is not meant to motivate the test team and make testers feel valued, as it may cause resistance or frustration if the tool is not suitable or easy to use.
NEW QUESTION # 109
A Software was re-deployed because the backend database was changed from one vendor to another The Test Manager decided to perform some functional tests on the redeployed system. This is an example of test of which test type?
- A. Unit tests
- B. Structural tests
- C. Regression tests
- D. Non-functional tests
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Regression testing is a type of testing that is performed after a software system has been changed or modified to verify that the changes have not introduced any new defects or adversely affected the existing functionality of the system. Regression testing can be performed when the software system undergoes different types of changes, such as:
Corrective changes: Changes that fix defects or errors in the software system Adaptive changes: Changes that adapt the software system to new platforms or environments Perfective changes: Changes that improve the performance or usability of the software system Preventive changes: Changes that avoid potential problems or issues in the software system In this case, the software system was re-deployed because the backend database was changed from one vendor to another, which is an example of an adaptive change. Therefore, the test manager decided to perform some functional tests on the re-deployed system to ensure that the change did not affect the functionality of the system. This is an example of regression testing.
The other types of testing mentioned in the question are not relevant for this scenario. For example:
Non-functional testing: This type of testing verifies the non-functional aspects of the software system, such as reliability, performance, security, usability, etc.
Structural testing: This type of testing verifies the internal structure or implementation of the software system, such as code, architecture, design, etc.
Unit testing: This type of testing verifies individual components or units of software in isolation from other components or systems.
You can find more information about regression testing in [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level
2018 Syllabus], Chapter 2, Section 2.4.
NEW QUESTION # 110
Which of the following statements is true?
- A. Regression testing is an alternative term for re-testing
- B. Regression testing is a technique for system testing and acceptance testing only.
- C. Regression testing can be used in any level of testing, but must be done after white-box testing has been finished.
- D. Regression testing is intended to find side-effects after changes have been applied to the system under test.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Regression testing is intended to find side-effects after changes have been applied to the system under test.
Side-effects are unintended consequences of changes that may cause new defects or re-introduce previously fixed defects in parts of the system that were not directly modified. Regression testing can be done at any level of testing and can use any type of testing technique.
Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus1, Chapter 5, Section 5.4.
NEW QUESTION # 111
A garden irrigation system allows the user to specify 2 inputs:
1. Frequency - The number of times the system should be automatically switched on per day; minimum once per day, maximum 5 times
2. Duration - The duration of operation, in whole minutes, each time it is switched on; ranging from 1 to 60 Applying 2-value boundary value analysis which of the following options has the correct test set of valid and invalid boundary values?
- A. Frequency 0, 1, 5, 6; Duration 0, 1, 30, 60, 61
- B. Frequency 1, 5; Duration 1, 60
- C. Frequency 0, 1, 5, 6; Duration 59 seconds, 1 minute, 60 minutes, 60 minutes 1 second
- D. Frequency 0, 1, 2, 5, 6; Duration 0, 1, 30, 60, 61
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Frequency 0, 1, 5, 6; Duration 0, 1, 30, 60, 61 is the correct test set of valid and invalid boundary values applying 2-value boundary value analysis1 . Boundary value analysis is a technique that tests the values at and near the boundaries of an input domain or output range1 . A 2-value boundary value analysis tests two values for each boundary: one valid value and one invalid value1 . For Frequency, the valid boundaries are 1 and 5, so the test set should include one valid value (1 or 5) and one invalid value (0 or 6) for each boundary. For Duration, the valid boundaries are 1 and 60, so the test set should include one valid value (1 or 60) and one invalid value (0 or 61) for each boundary. The other options are incorrect test sets of valid and invalid boundary values applying 2-value boundary value analysis. Option A only includes valid values for each boundary, but not invalid values. Option B includes invalid values that are not adjacent to the boundaries (59 seconds and 60 minutes 1 second). Option D includes more than two values for each boundary (0, 1, 2 for Frequency; 0, 1, 30 for Duration).
NEW QUESTION # 112
Consider the following pseudo code:
1. Begin
2. Input X, Y
3. If X > Y
4. __Print (X, 'is greater than', Y)
5. Else
6. __Print (Y, is greater than or equal to', X)
7. EndIf
8. End
What is the minimum number of test cases required to guarantee both 100% statement coverage and 100% decision coverage?
- A. Statement coverage = 2, Decision coverage = 2
- B. Statement coverage = 2, Decision coverage = 1
- C. Statement coverage = 3, Decision coverage = 3
- D. Statement coverage = 1, Decision coverage = 2
Answer: A
Explanation:
The minimum number of test cases required to guarantee both 100% statement coverage and 100% decision coverage is 2. Statement coverage means that every statement in the code is executed at least once by the test cases. Decision coverage means that every possible outcome of each decision (such as if-else statements) is executed at least once by the test cases. To achieve both statement and decision coverage, we need to test two scenarios: one where X > Y and one where X <= Y. This will ensure that all statements and decisions are covered by the test cases. A detailed explanation of statement and decision coverage can be found in A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus, pages 61-671.
NEW QUESTION # 113
A company purchased a new system which deals with all financial transactions in the company Which test
types call for involvement of an expert from the financial department?
- A. Acceptance tests
- B. Component testing
- C. System tests
- D. Maintenance testing
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 114
Which of the following sentences about testing and debugging is correct?
- A. Like most development activities, debugging is usually done before testing starts
- B. Dynamic testing finds defects, while debugging removes failures
- C. Dynamic testing reveals failures, while debugging removes defects
- D. Re-testing checks that debugging has found and analyzed the failure
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Testing and debugging are two different activities that are related to finding and removing defects and failures in software. Testing is the process of evaluating software by applying test cases to find failures and provide information on its quality. Debugging is the process of finding, analyzing, and removing the causes of failures in software. Testing reveals failures, which are deviations of the actual behavior of the software from its expected behavior. Debugging removes defects, which are flaws in the software that cause failures.
References: Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus, Section 1.2.1
NEW QUESTION # 115
One of the exit criteria for a SW project was defined as "80% statement coverage".
A test manager submitted the following report:
"We did not measure the statement coverage. However, we ensured 80% branch coverage, therefore the exit criteria was met".
Is the test manager right?
- A. Yes. 50% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage. With 80% branch coverage, the exit criteria is easily met.
- B. No There is not direct relationship 80% branch coverage does not guarantee 80% statement coverage
- C. No. The relation works the other way: 80% statement coverage guarantees 80% branch coverage
- D. Yes Coverage of 80% of the branches in the control flow guarantees 80% statement coverage
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The test manager is not right because there is no direct relationship between branch coverage and statement coverage. Branch coverage measures how many branches in the control flow have been executed by a set of test cases, while statement coverage measures how many statements in the code have been executed by a set of test cases. It is possible to achieve high branch coverage without achieving high statement coverage, if some statements are not part of any branch condition or are not reachable by any test case.
Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus1, Chapter 6, Section 6.2.2, page
147.
NEW QUESTION # 116
The Cambrian Pullman Express has special ticketing requirements represented by the partial decision table
below.
Refer to the exhibit
Carol has a student railcard and is travelling on a Flexible Standard Class ticket. James has a senior railcard
and is travelling on a super saver ticket. Which of the options represents the correct actions for these two test
cases? [K3]
- A. Carol is eligible to upgrade; James cannot use the service
- B. Carol is OK to travel; James is eligible for an upgrade
- C. Carol and James are both eligible to upgrade
- D. Carol is OK to travel; James cannot use the service
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 117
Which of the following is a valid reason for writing test cases based on experience and intuition? [K1]
- A. Tests based on experience and intuition can supplement formal techniques
- B. Formal techniques require the use of expensive tools
- C. Only experience can ensure all functionality is covered
- D. Use of formal techniques requires expensive training
Answer: A
Explanation:
A valid reason for writing test cases based on experience and intuition is C.
Tests based on experience and intuition can supplement formal techniques. Experience and intuition are valuable sources of test ideas that can help testers to identify potential risks, errors, or scenarios that may not be covered by formal techniques.
Formal techniques are systematic methods that use rules or algorithms to derive test cases from the test basis (such as specifications, code, etc.). Formal techniques include black-box techniques (such as equivalence partitioning, boundary value analysis, etc.) and white-box techniques (such as statement coverage, decision coverage, etc.). Formal techniques can provide a high level of coverage and consistency, but they may not be able to capture all possible situations or behaviors of the system or component under test. Therefore, tests based on experience and intuition can supplement formal techniques by adding more diversity and creativity to the test cases. A detailed explanation of experience-based testing techniques can be found in [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus], pages 74-76.
NEW QUESTION # 118
Which of the following statements is true?
- A. A requirements management tool may be considered as test support tool
- B. A configuration management tool has nothing to do with testing
- C. Test management tools are used by managers only
- D. Incident management tools are used by testers only
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 119
Which of the following test organizations has the highest level of independence?
- A. Independent testers from the user community
- B. Code tested by another developer from the development team
- C. Independent test specialists for specific test types, such as usability, performance or certification test
specialists - D. Independent testers within the development teams
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 120
Refer to the exhibit
The following test cases need to be run, but time is limited, and it is possible that not all will be completed before the end of the test window
The first activity is to run any re-tests, followed by the regression test script. Users have supplied their priority order to tests.
Which of the following gives an appropriate test execution schedule, taking account of the prioritisation and other constraints? [K3]
- A. b, c, g, d, e, i, a, f, h
- B. d, c, a, e, b, g, i, f, h
- C. a, c, d, b, g, e, i, f, h
- D. c, a, d, b, e, g, i, h, f
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The test execution schedule should take into account the prioritization and other constraints given in the question. The first activity is to run any re-tests, followed by the regression test script. Users have supplied their priority order to tests. Therefore, the test execution schedule should start with the re-test defect no 52, which is shown in the image as a table with 9 rows and 4 columns. The table is titled "Re-test defect no 52".
The columns are labeled: "#", "Description", "Priority", "Note", "Re-test". The table is populated with data about different tasks and their priority and notes. The tasks are related to sales figures and account administration. The table is in black and white. The re-test defect no 52 has three tasks: c, a, and d, which have priority 1, 2, and 3 respectively. Therefore, the test execution schedule should start with c, followed by a, and then d. After that, the regression test script should be run, which is task e. Then, the remaining tasks should be run according to the user priority order: b, g, i, h, and f. Therefore, the test execution schedule is c, a, d, e, b, g, i, h, and f.
NEW QUESTION # 121
Which of the following processes ensures that all items of testware are identified, version controlled, tracked for changes, so that traceability can be maintained throughout the test process?
- A. Configuration management process
- B. Software traceability process
- C. Incidence management process
- D. Testing design process
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The process that ensures that all items of testware are identified, version controlled, tracked for changes, so that traceability can be maintained throughout the test process is D. Configuration management process.
Configuration management is a process that establishes and maintains the integrity and consistency of all items of testware throughout the test process. Configuration management involves identifying, storing, controlling, tracking, and auditing all items of testware (such as test plans, test cases, test scripts, test data, test results, etc.) and their versions and changes. Configuration management helps to ensure that only authorized and approved items of testware are used for testing and that traceability can be maintained between them. A detailed explanation of configuration management can be found in A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level
2018 Syllabus, pages 101-1021.
NEW QUESTION # 122
Which of the following options describe the chain of events in the correct sequence?
- A. Error, fault, failure
- B. Mistake, failure, fault
- C. Fault, bug. mistake
- D. Failure, bug, error
Answer: B
Explanation:
In the context of software testing, the correct sequence of events typically starts with a mistake, which is a human error made during the software development process. This mistake can lead to a fault in the code, which is a defect or bug that exists in the software. If this fault is executed, it may cause a failure, which is an instance where the software does not perform its intended function.
References: The ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 documents provide detailed explanations of these terms and their sequence. Specifically, the syllabus outlines the fundamental concepts of software testing, including the definitions and differences between errors, faults, and failures.
NEW QUESTION # 123
When considering the roles of test leader and tester, which of the following tasks would NOT typically be
performed by a tester?
- A. Write test summary reports
- B. Review tests developed by others
- C. Set up and check the test environment
- D. Prepare and acquire the test data
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 124
Which of the following statements about use cases and use case testing is NOT TRUE?
- A. Use case testing can find defects in the process flow.
- B. Use cases can be described at the abstract level or at the system level
- C. Use cases can be used as test basis for acceptance testing
- D. Use cases are normally derived from decision tables
Answer: D
Explanation:
The statement that use cases are normally derived from decision tables is not true. Decision tables are a technique to represent complex logical conditions in a tabular form, where each column represents a possible combination of conditions and actions. Use cases are a technique to describe how a system interacts with one or more actors (users or other systems) to achieve a specific goal. Use cases are not derived from decision tables, but from the requirements and the user's perspective of the system.
References: [Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus], Section 4.5.2 and 4.3.2
NEW QUESTION # 125
Which activity in the fundamental test process includes test script generation?
- A. Test analysis and design
- B. Test planning and control
- C. Test closure activities
- D. Test implementation and execution
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Test implementation and execution is the activity in the fundamental test process that includes test script generation. Test script generation is the process of creating executable test cases from test conditions and test data2 defines this activity as follows:
Test implementation and execution has the following major tasks:
Develop and prioritize test cases, creating test data and writing test procedures.
Check test environment has been set up correctly.
Execute test cases, evaluate results and document deviations from expected results.
Use exit criteria to report on suitability of system under test.
Test closure activities (A) include finalizing and archiving test results, evaluating the test process, identifying areas for improvement, and celebrating achievements. Test analysis and design (B) include reviewing test basis, identifying test conditions, designing high-level test cases, and defining exit criteria. Test planning and control include defining test objectives, scope, strategy, resources, schedule, risks, and metrics.
NEW QUESTION # 126
Test script TransVal 3.1 tests transaction validation via screen TRN 003B. According to the specification (PID ver 1.3 10b iv) the validation screen should not accept future dated transactions. Test script TransVal 3.1 passes. Test script eod 1.4 tests end of day processing and is run after the execution of TransVal 3.1 using data entered during that test Which of the following is the BEST detail on an incident report? [K3]
- A. Title. Transaction input screen validation..Reproducible. Yes. Description. Script eod 1..4 fails . Screen shot of the failure attached. Validation of transaction entryon screen TRN-003B should not allow future dated transactions - see PID ver 1.3 para 10b iv.
- B. Title. Screen TRN-003B validation of transaction date. Reproducible. Yes. Description. Script eod 1.4 fails when the first transaction of the day is a future dated transaction. Screen shot of the failure attached. Validation of transaction entry on screen TRN-003B should not allow future dated transactions
- see PID ver 1.3 para 10b iv. - C. Title. End of Day failure.. Reproducible. Yes. Description. Script eod 1.4 fails when the first transaction of the day is a future dated transaction. Screen shot of the failure attached.
- D. Title. Screen TRN-003B validation of transaction date.. Reproducible. No. Description. When a future dated transaction is processed by the end of day process, a failure can occur. This does not always happen. Screen shot of the failure attached.
Answer: B
Explanation:
* An incident report is a document that records any event occurring during testing that requires investigation1. An incident report should contain sufficient information to enable reproduction of the incident and resolution of the defect1. According to IEEE 829 Standard for Software Test Documentation, an incident report should contain the following information:
* Identifier: A unique identifier for the incident report
* Summary: A brief summary of the incident
* Incident description: A description of the incident, including:
* Date: The date when the incident was observed
* Author: The name of the person who reported the incident
* Source: The software or system lifecycle process in which the incident was observed
* Version: The identification of configuration items of the software or system
* Test case: The identification of the test case that caused the incident
* Execution phase: The phase of test execution when the incident was observed
* Environment: The hardware and software environment in which the incident was observed
* Description: A description of the anomaly to enable reproduction of the incident
* Expected result: The expected result of the test case
* Actual result: The actual result of the test case
* Reproducibility: An indication of whether the incident can be reproduced or not
* Impact analysis: An analysis of the impact of the incident on other aspects of the software or system
* Incident resolution: A description of how the incident was resolved, including:
* Resolution date: The date when the incident was resolved
* Resolver: The name of the person who resolved the incident
* Resolution summary: A brief summary of how the incident was resolved
* Status: The current status of the incident (e.g., open, closed, deferred)
* Classification information: A classification of the cause and effect of the incident for metrics and reporting purposes Therefore, among the options given in this question, only D provides the best detail on an incident report. It contains a clear title, a reproducibility indicator, a description that includes both expected and actual results, a reference to the specification document, and a screen shot of the failure. The other options are either missing some important information or providing inaccurate or irrelevant information
NEW QUESTION # 127
For a mandatory input field 'ZIP code" the following rules are given:
1 - The valid ZIP code format is 5 numeric digits
2 - The code has to exist in the pest office's official ZIP code list
Using equivalence classes partitioning, how many test cases are required to test this field?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: C
Explanation:
Equivalence partitioning is a technique to divide a set of possible inputs or outputs into classes that are expected to behave similarly or produce similar results. For each equivalence class, only one test case is required to represent the whole class. In this case, we can identify the following equivalence classes for the input field 'ZIP code':
* Valid ZIP code format and valid ZIP code value (e.g., 12345)
* Valid ZIP code format and invalid ZIP code value (e.g., 99999)
* Invalid ZIP code format and valid ZIP code value (e.g., 1234)
* Invalid ZIP code format and invalid ZIP code value (e.g., ABCDE)
Therefore, four test cases are required to test this field using equivalence partitioning.
References: Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus, Section 4.4.1
NEW QUESTION # 128
Which of the following would achieve the HIGHEST level of testing independence for a project's test level?
- A. Having the company's independent test team design and execute the tests
- B. Training developers to design good tests for the test team to execute
- C. Minimising contact between testers and developers during test design to avoid bias
- D. Outsourcing test design and execution to a different company
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Having the company's independent test team design and execute the tests would achieve the highest level of testing independence for a project's test level, because it would reduce the bias and influence of the developers or other stakeholders who are involved in the software development1 . An independent test team can provide a different perspective and focus on testing activities without being affected by development pressures or deadlines1 . The other options would not achieve the highest level of testing independence for a project's test level. Option A is not a good option, because training developers to design good tests for the test team to execute would still introduce some bias and influence from the developers' point of view1 . Option C is not a good option, because minimizing contact between testers and developers during test design to avoid bias would reduce the communication and collaboration that are essential for effective testing and defect resolution1 . Option D is not a good option, because outsourcing test design and execution to a different company would introduce some risks and challenges such as contractual issues, cultural differences, or loss of control over quality
NEW QUESTION # 129 
The decision table above reflects a golf club's pricing structure for green fees and buggy/cart hire.
What is the expected result (actions) for each of the following two test cases (TC1 and TC2)?
* TC 1 - Paul is not a full member, is a Loyalty Card holder and requests to play 18 holes with a buggy/cart
* TC 2 - Cheryl is not at full member, doesn't have a Loyalty Card and requests to play 9 holes with a buggy/cart
- A. TC1 - E23 total charges including buggy hire; TC2 - E21 total charge including buggy hire
- B. TC1 - E23 total charges including buggy hire; TC2 - E16 total charge but no buggy allowed
- C. TC1 - E17 total charges but no buggy allowed; TC2 - E21 total charge including buggy hire
- D. TC1 - E18 total charges including buggy hire; TC2 - E16 total charge but no buggy allowed
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 130
Which of the following software development models BEST exemplifies a model that does NOT support the principle of early testing?
- A. The Iterative development model
- B. The Incremental development model
- C. The V-model
- D. The Waterfall model
Answer: D
Explanation:
According to the syllabus, a software development life cycle (SDLC) model is a conceptual framework that describes the phases and activities involved in developing a software product. Different SDLC models have different advantages and disadvantages depending on the project context and objectives. The principle of early testing states that testing activities should start as early as possible in the software development life cycle and be focused on defined objectives. Early testing helps to prevent defects, reduce rework, lower costs, and improve quality. The answer A is correct because it best exemplifies a model that does not support the principle of early testing. The waterfall model is a sequential SDLC model that divides the development process into distinct phases, such as requirements analysis, design, implementation, testing, and maintenance.
Each phase must be completed before the next phase can begin, and there is no overlap or iteration between phases. Testing is done only after the implementation phase, which means that defects are detected late in the development cycle and are more expensive and difficult to fix. The other answers are incorrect because they exemplify models that support the principle of early testing. The V-model is an extension of the waterfall model that emphasizes verification and validation activities at each phase of development. Testing is done in parallel with each corresponding development phase, which means that defects are detected early and feedback is provided to the developers. The incremental development model is an iterative SDLC model that divides the development process into smaller increments or iterations, each delivering a working software product or a subset of features. Testing is done at the end of each iteration, which means that defects are detected early and feedback is provided to the developers. The iterative development model is another iterative SDLC model that repeats the development process for each iteration, with each iteration producing an improved version of the software product or a subset of features. Testing is done throughout each iteration, which means that defects are detected early and feedback is provided to the developers.
References: Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus, Section 1.1.1, page 9-10.
NEW QUESTION # 131
......
Authentic Best resources for CTFL_Syll2018 Online Practice Exam: https://torrentpdf.validvce.com/CTFL_Syll2018-exam-collection.html
