[Nov 08, 2024] CompTIA Dumps - Learn How To Deal With The (CS0-002) Exam Anxiety
DEMO FREE BEFORE YOU BUY CS0-002 DUMPS
What is CompTIA CS0-002 Exam
CompTIA CS0-002 exam is a CompTIA A+ Certification Exam, the second exam required of the two-exam sequence required for this certification. This exam is designed to validate skills in PC hardware and software troubleshooting, installation, and configuration of desktop PCs. Stuck in the middle of your study for the CompTIA CS0-002 exam? Then you are at the right place. Here we provide the advantage of knowledge. Levels of questions are arranged to cover topic objectives, so you'll have an edge in your preparation. The most important topics are covered in depth, so you have a good base for your preparation. Issue type is arranged to cover all topics of the exam, so you will not be surprised in the actual exam. It will be easy to answer even tricky questions. Miner 4Test has been committed to be your best choice for IT certification exam preparation. CompTIA CS0-002 exam dumps are the right way to success in your exam. Aware of your needs, we cover all exam topics, so you will be ready for your CompTIA CS0-002 exam. Scan our articles and prepare for your exam. Machine of the product is of the latest version. Traffic is running smoothly, so you will not worry about the quality of the product. All the products are checked thoroughly before posting. Reviews are collected after the test. Thus, you will receive the most updated product. Received the product and find it's not the latest version? Rdns, crs, msa are all coped with it. We will update the content in time. It's not that huge task to do.
Controls of CompTIA CS0-002 questions are updated periodically. It is apparent that the number of questions in order to cover all the topics of this exam is overwhelming. Defined formats, numbering, and stringing are set to guarantee that not all the exam population will be unable to answer all questions in CompTIA CS0-002 exam. Prior to the release of new questions, practice exam questions are released to make sure that the real exam environment is supported. Reports are released to make sure that all questions in CompTIA CS0-002 exam are covered. In this way, users will have an easy access to the latest materials. Reviewing question papers is the best way to get familiar with the exam. Organizational structure is designed to help users focus on the important topics. In this way, users can prepare well for the exam. Business policies are supported by CompTIA CS0-002 questions. Users are able to understand the latest trends of this exam. Perimeter is safe to ensure your privacy. User information is protected when you access this product. To ensure the authenticity of CompTIA CS0-002 exam questions, there are security verification services in place. Datacenters are equipped with facilities and technologies that are designed to provide you with the highest level of service. Hypothesis and scenario-based questions and scenario-based simulation questions are targeted towards the actual CompTIA CS0-002 exam.
NEW QUESTION # 24
The security team at a large corporation is helping the payment-processing team to prepare for a regulatory compliance audit and meet the following objectives:
- Reduce the number of potential findings by the auditors.
- Limit the scope of the audit to only devices used by the payment-
processing team for activities directly impacted by the regulations.
- Prevent the external-facing web infrastructure used by other teams
from coming into scope.
- Limit the amount of exposure the company will face if the systems
used by the payment-processing team are compromised.
Which of the following would be the MOST effective way for the security team to meet these objectives?
- A. Deploy patches to all servers and workstations across the entire organization.
- B. Limit the permissions to prevent other employees from accessing data owned by the business unit.
- C. Segment the servers and systems used by the business unit from the rest of the network.
- D. Implement full-disk encryption on the laptops used by employees of the payment-processing team.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 25
The majority of a company's employees have stated they are unable to perform their job duties due to outdated workstations, so the company has decided to institute BYOD. Which of the following would a security analyst MOST likely recommend for securing the proposed solution?
- A. A firewalled environment for client devices and a secure VDl for BYOO users
- B. A standardized anti-malware platform and a unified operating system vendor
- C. 802.1X lo enforce company policy on BYOD user hardware
- D. A Linux-based system and mandatory training on Linux for all BYOD users
Answer: A
Explanation:
VDI means virtual desktop interface. Using VDI, you can maintain a standard image and remove the threat of an infected machine plugging into your network.
NEW QUESTION # 26
A company's Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is concerned about the integrity of some highly confidential files. Any changes to these files must be tied back to a specific authorized user's activity session. Which of the following is the BEST technique to address the CISO's concerns?
- A. Regularly use SHA-256 to hash the directory containing the sensitive information. Monitor the files for unauthorized changes.
- B. Use Wireshark to scan all traffic to and from the directory. Monitor the files for unauthorized changes.
- C. Configure DLP to reject all changes to the files without pre-authorization. Monitor the files for unauthorized changes.
- D. Place a legal hold on the files. Require authorized users to abide by a strict time context access policy.
Monitor the files for unauthorized changes.
Answer: C,D
NEW QUESTION # 27
A security analyst is reviewing the following log after enabling key-based authentication.
Given the above information, which of the following steps should be performed NEXT to secure the system?
- A. Disable SSHv1.
- B. Disable remote root SSH logins.
- C. Disable anonymous SSH logins.
- D. Disable password authentication for SSH.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 28
Risk management wants IT to implement a solution that will permit an analyst to intercept, execute, and analyze potentially malicious files that are downloaded from the Internet.
Which of the following would BEST provide this solution?
- A. Decomposition of malware
- B. Sandboxing
- C. Risk evaluation
- D. File fingerprinting
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 29
You are a cybersecurity analyst tasked with interpreting scan data from Company A's servers. You must verify the requirements are being met for all of the servers and recommend changes if you find they are not.
The company's hardening guidelines indicate the following:
* TLS 1.2 is the only version of TLS running.
* Apache 2.4.18 or greater should be used.
* Only default ports should be used.
INSTRUCTIONS
Using the supplied data, record the status of compliance with the company's guidelines for each server.
The question contains two parts: make sure you complete Part 1 and Part 2. Make recommendations for issues based ONLY on the hardening guidelines provided.
Answer:
Explanation:
Part 1 answer:
Check on the following:
AppServ1 is only using TLS.1.2
AppServ4 is only using TLS.1.2
AppServ1 is using Apache 2.4.18 or greater
AppServ3 is using Apache 2.4.18 or greater
AppServ4 is using Apache 2.4.18 or greater
Part 2 answer:
Recommendation:
Recommendation is to disable TLS v1.1 on AppServ2 and AppServ3. Also upgrade AppServ2 Apache to version 2.4.48 from its current version of 2.3.48
NEW QUESTION # 30
A security analyst identified one server that was compromised and used as a data making machine, and a few of the hard drive that was created. Which of the following will MOST likely provide information about when and how the machine was compromised and where the malware is located?
- A. Data carving
- B. Volatile memory analysts
- C. System timeline reconstruction
- D. System registry extraction
Answer: C
Explanation:
System timeline reconstruction is a forensic analysis technique that involves creating a chronological record of events that occurred on a system based on various sources of evidence such as log files, registry entries, file timestamps, network traffic, etc. System timeline reconstruction can provide information about when and how the machine was compromised and where the malware is located by showing when suspicious activities or changes took place on the system, such as unauthorized access attempts, file creation or modification, process execution, network connections, etc.
NEW QUESTION # 31
An organization suspects it has had a breach, and it is trying to determine the potential impact.
The organization knows the following:
- The source of the breach is linked to an IP located in a foreign
country.
- The breach is isolated to the research and development servers.
- The hash values of the data before and after the breach are
unchanged.
- The affected servers were regularly patched, and a recent scan showed no vulnerabilities.
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn with respect to the threat and impact? (Choose two.)
- A. The threat is an insider.
- B. The confidentiality of the data is unaffected.
- C. The source IP of the threat has been spoofed.
- D. The integrity of the data is unaffected.
- E. The threat is an APT.
Answer: D,E
NEW QUESTION # 32
A product security analyst has been assigned to evaluate and validate a new products security capabilities Part ot the evaluation involves reviewing design changes at specific intervals tor security deficiencies recommending changes and checking for changes at the next checkpoint Which of the following BEST defines the activity being conducted?
- A. Security regression testing
- B. Code review
- C. User acceptance testing
- D. Stress testing
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Once the SDLC reached the development phase, code starts to be generated. That means that the ability to control the version of the software or component that your team is working on, combined with check-in/check-out functionality and revision histories, is a necessary and powerful tool when developing software.
The question refers to a "new" product so I believe that is key. However, it also makes it seem that it is about the development of a product that could be in production.
Regression testing focuses on testing to ensure that changes that have been made do not create new issues, and ensure that no new vulnerabilities, misconfigurations, or other issues have been introduced.
NEW QUESTION # 33
A custom script monitors real-time
- A. Access to logs may be delayed for some time.
- B. Log data may be visible to other customers.
- C. SAML logging is not supported for cloud-based authentication.
- D. Logs may contain incorrect information
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 34
A security analyst is reviewing the following log from an email security service.
Which of the following BEST describes the reason why the email was blocked?
- A. The email originated from the www.spamfilter.org URL.
- B. The To address is invalid.
- C. The From address is invalid.
- D. The IP address and the remote server name are the same.
- E. The IP address was blacklisted.
Answer: E
NEW QUESTION # 35
A forensic analyst is conducting an investigation on a compromised server Which of the following should the analyst do first to preserve evidence''
- A. Restore damaged data from the backup media
- B. Create a system timeline
- C. Monitor user access to compromised systems
- D. Back up all log files and audit trails
Answer: D
Explanation:
A forensic analyst is conducting an investigation on a compromised server. The first step that the analyst should do to preserve evidence is to back up all log files and audit trails. This will ensure that the analyst has a copy of the original data that can be used for analysis and verification. Backing up the log files and audit trails will also prevent any tampering or modification of the evidence by the attacker or other parties. The other options are not the first steps or may alter or destroy the evidence. Reference: CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Objectives (CS0-002), page 16; https://www.nist.gov/publications/guide-collection-and-preservation-digital-evidence
NEW QUESTION # 36
A cybersecurity analyst is hired to review the security measures implemented within the domain controllers of a company. Upon review, the cybersecurity analyst notices a brute force attack can be launched against domain controllers that run on a Windows platform. The first remediation step implemented by the cybersecurity analyst is to make the account passwords more complex.
Which of the following is the NEXT remediation step the cybersecurity analyst needs to implement?
- A. Deploy a vulnerability scanner tool.
- B. Perform more frequent port scanning.
- C. Disable the ability to store a LAN manager hash.
- D. Move administrator accounts to a new security group.
- E. Install a different antivirus software.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 37
According to a static analysis report for a web application, a dynamic code evaluation script injection vulnerability was found. Which of the following actions is the BEST option to fix the vulnerability in the source code?
- A. Delete the vulnerable section of the code immediately.
- B. Create a custom rule on the web application firewall.
- C. Validate user input before execution and interpretation.
- D. Use parameterized queries.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Validating user input before execution and interpretation can help to prevent dynamic code evaluation script injection vulnerabilities by checking and filtering any malicious input from the user that may contain code or commands. Dynamic code evaluation script injection is a type of vulnerability that occurs when an application accepts user input and executes or interprets it as part of its own code without proper validation or sanitization. This can allow an attacker to inject arbitrary code or commands into the application and execute them with the same privileges as the application . Validating user input before execution and interpretation can help to ensure that the input conforms to the expected format, length and type, and does not contain any malicious characters or syntax that may alter the logic or behavior of the application .
NEW QUESTION # 38
A large organization wants to move account registration services to the cloud to benefit from faster processing and elasticity. Which of the following should be done FIRST to determine the potential risk to the organization?
- A. Establish a recovery time objective and a recovery point objective for the systems being moved
- B. Identify the business processes that will be migrated and the criticality of each one
- C. Determine recovery priorities for the assets being moved to the cloud-based systems
- D. Perform an inventory of the servers that will be moving and assign priority to each one
- E. Calculate the resource requirements for moving the systems to the cloud
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 39
Which of the following is a technology used to provide Internet access to internal associates without exposing the Internet directly to the associates?
- A. Vulnerability scanner
- B. Web proxy
- C. Intrusion prevention system
- D. Fuzzer
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 40
A hacker issued a command and received the following response:
Which of the following describes what the hacker is attempting?
- A. Performing a zombie scan
- B. OS fingerprinting
- C. Penetrating the system
- D. Topology discovery
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 41
A security analyst is attempting to resolve an incident in which highly confidential company pricing information was sent to clients. It appears this information was unintentionally sent by an employee who attached it to public marketing material. Which of the following configuration changes would work BEST to limit the risk of this incident being repeated?
- A. Sanitize the marketing material.
- B. Add client addresses to the blocklist.
- C. Update the DLP rules and metadata.
- D. Update the insider threat procedures.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Data Loss Prevention (DLP) is a security technology designed to detect, prevent, and respond to the unauthorized disclosure of confidential data. By updating the DLP rules and metadata, it is possible to better define what types of confidential information can be shared and limit access to any sensitive documents.
NEW QUESTION # 42
Which of the following describes the mam difference between supervised and unsupervised machine-learning algorithms that are used in cybersecurity applications?
- A. Supervised algorithms can be used to block attacks, while unsupervised algorithms cannot.
- B. Supervised algorithms require security analyst feedback, while unsupervised algorithms do not.
- C. Unsupervised algorithms are not suitable for IDS systems, white supervised algorithms are
- D. Unsupervised algorithms produce more false positives. Than supervised algorithms.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Supervised and unsupervised machine-learning algorithms are two types of machine-learning methods that are used in cybersecurity applications. Machine learning is a branch of artificial intelligence that enables systems to learn from data and improve their performance without explicit programming.
Supervised machine-learning algorithms are trained on labeled data, which means that each data point has a known outcome or class. Supervised algorithms learn to map input data to output data by finding patterns or rules from the training data. Supervised algorithms require security analyst feedback to provide labels for the data and evaluate the accuracy of the algorithm's predictions. Examples of supervised machine-learning algorithms are classification and regression.
Unsupervised machine-learning algorithms are trained on unlabeled data, which means that each data point has no known outcome or class. Unsupervised algorithms learn to discover hidden structures or patterns from the data without any guidance or feedback. Unsupervised algorithms do not require security analyst feedback, as they do not rely on predefined labels or outcomes. Examples of unsupervised machine-learning algorithms are clustering and anomaly detection.
NEW QUESTION # 43
An organization has recently experienced a data breach. A forensic analysis confirmed the attacker found a legacy web server that had not been used in over a year and was not regularly patched. After a discussion with the security team, management decided to initiate a program of network reconnaissance and penetration testing. They want to start the process by scanning the network for active hosts and open ports. Which of the following tools is BEST suited for this job?
- A. L0phtCrack
- B. Netstat
- C. Ping
- D. Nmap
- E. ifconfig
- F. Wireshark
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 44
A cyber-security analyst is implementing a new network configuration on an existing network access layer to prevent possible physical attacks. Which of the following BEST describes a solution that would apply and cause fewer issues during the deployment phase?
- A. Configure 802.1X and EAPOL across the network
- B. Implement software-defined networking and security groups for isolation
- C. Deploy network address protection with DHCP and dynamic VLANs.
- D. Implement port security with one MAC address per network port of the switch.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 45
A small electronics company decides to use a contractor to assist with the development of a new FPGA-based device. Several of the development phases will occur off-site at the contractor's labs.
Which of the following is the main concern a security analyst should have with this arrangement?
- A. Making multiple trips between development sites increases the chance of physical damage to the FPGAs.
- B. FPGA applications are easily cloned, increasing the possibility of intellectual property theft.
- C. Development phases occurring at multiple sites may produce change management issues.
- D. Moving the FPGAs between development sites will lessen the time that is available for security testing.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference: https://www.eetimes.com/how-to-protect-intellectual-property-in-fpgas-devices-part-1/#
NEW QUESTION # 46
A security analyst inspects the header of an email that is presumed to be malicious and sees the following:
Which of the following is inconsistent with the rest of the header and should be treated as suspicious?
- A. The subject line
- B. The destination email server
- C. The sender's email address
- D. The use of a TLS cipher
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 47
......
Latest CompTIA CS0-002 Dumps with Test Engine and PDF: https://torrentpdf.validvce.com/CS0-002-exam-collection.html
